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Exam 300-410 topic 1 question 296 discussion

Actual exam question from Cisco's 300-410
Question #: 296
Topic #: 1
[All 300-410 Questions]

A new site has been added to an OPSF network using area 2. Area 2 is connected only to area 1 of this OSPF network. Area 1 is used to connect area 1 to the backbone area 0. Should you expect full connectivity to the networks located in area 2 from area 0 in this scenario?

  • A. Yes, by default there will be full connectivity.
  • B. No, you will need to redistribute the area 2 routes into area 0.
  • C. No, a virtual link is needed to logically connect area 2 info area 0.
  • D. Yes, but area 2 will need to be configured as a stub area.
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Suggested Answer: C 🗳️
by spada05 at July 24, 2023, 7:17 p.m.

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bf10690
8 months, 2 weeks ago
Selected Answer: C
You need to connect all OSPF areas to the backbone (area 0). If you can't do this the traditional way, you need to use a virtual link to connect them.
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[Removed]
9 months, 3 weeks ago
Selected Answer: C
C is correct
upvoted 1 times
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spada05
1 year, 9 months ago
Selected Answer: C
Typo? I assume it meant to say "Area 2 is used to connect area 1..." instead of area 1 to area 1. Given that, a virtual link is correct.
upvoted 2 times
[Removed]
9 months, 3 weeks ago
No it´s not a typo, since area 2 is connected only to area 1, which in turn is connected to the backbone area 0, area 2 is not directly connected to area 0. To achieve full connectivity, a virtual link is required to connect area 2 to area 0 through area 1.
upvoted 4 times
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