Exam 300-410 topic 1 question 484 discussion

C doesn't really make any sense. Next-hop-self needs to be enabled on router 192.168.20.20 which is presumably R2, not on R1 itself. R2 (192.168.20.20) is peering with R3 (192.168.10.20) and R1 (192.168.20.10). I'd go with A

Take a look Q95 https://www.networktut.com/new-enarsi-questions-6 The next hop is preserved in eBGP advertisements for IBGP neighbor so it will not change when R2 advertises to IBGP router R1 and this is the case of this question. The below figure helps you understand it: BGP_inaccessible_next_hop_self.jpg Although R2 keeps the next-hop 192.168.10.20 when advertising to R1 for network 10.0.0.0/8 but R1 does not know how to reach this next-hop so it is marked as inaccessible. Also from the output “192.168.10.20 (inaccessible) from 192.168.20.20”, we learn that the IP address 192.168.10.20 was learned from 192.168.20.20 so this IP address belongs to R2 interface which is facing R1. Therefore the IP address of R1 interface which is facing R2 should be 192.168.20.10. One solution of this problem is to set the command “neighbor 192.168.20.10 next-hop-self” on R2 so that R2 advertise its IP address as the next-hop for R1.

A is corerct

Correct answer is C for me

answer is C R3 <------> R2 <------> R1. R1 is not directly connected to R3 192.168.10.20 is R3 192.168.20.20 is R2 192.168.20.10 is R1 next-hop self need to be set on R2