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Exam 200-901 topic 1 question 73 discussion

Actual exam question from Cisco's 200-901
Question #: 73
Topic #: 1
[All 200-901 Questions]

Refer to the exhibits.


A developer is troubleshooting an API with the given API documentation and cURL command. What is the cause of this problem?

  • A. The authorization header is missing or incomplete.
  • B. The request body is missing or incomplete.
  • C. The API token specified is expired.
  • D. The user is not allowed to post messages from their account.
Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: A 🗳️

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jonasff
Highly Voted 3 years, 5 months ago
A is correct. It's missing the "Bearer" word before the token on header.
upvoted 64 times
Jowy
3 years, 3 months ago
But would response mean something here , invalid access token !!
upvoted 3 times
vdwins
3 years ago
Tested this in Postman. WebEx returns this error when 'Bearer' is missing from Auth header.
upvoted 7 times
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JimGrayham
Highly Voted 2 years, 10 months ago
C. is correct. Access token has validity of only 12 hours. I tried using an expired token and got 401. { "errors": [ { "description": "The request requires a valid access token set in the Authorization request header." } ], "message": "The request requires a valid access token set in the Authorization request header.", "trackingId": "ROUTER_6011BD76-C99C-01BB-5AFD-AC12F8F25AFD" } 401
upvoted 15 times
Avinash7
2 years, 2 months ago
Did you try without "Bearer" ?
upvoted 2 times
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throwaway_account
Most Recent 6 months, 1 week ago
Selected Answer: A
First off, this is a junk question filled with "gotchas". Yes, they're doing a POST when the API docs say it should be a get. If that was really the problem, we'd be getting a 400 Bad Request. When an API is designed properly to require authentication/authorization, a 401 takes precedence over a 400. You don't want randos bombing your API with bad requests looking for weaknesses. Auth/auth happens first. Both A and C would produce a 401, as demonstrated by others. In the absence of information suggesting otherwise, that leaves A as the most plausible since we know it produces a 401, and there's no indication that enough time has passed for the token to be expired.
upvoted 3 times
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nunyabeez
10 months ago
Selected Answer: A
A is correct. I had this exact problem when I was doing the Webex labs in the devnet course. I left "Bearer: " out of the token string and it returned a 401 error. When I added that to the token string, it worked.
upvoted 2 times
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r3mo
10 months, 2 weeks ago
C. Is correct. for the 401 response
upvoted 1 times
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mellohello
1 year ago
Selected Answer: A
The correct answer is A: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/list-messages#:~:text=401,missing%20or%20incorrect.
upvoted 1 times
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aplicacion101
1 year, 1 month ago
A is obious
upvoted 1 times
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Toxkalcan
1 year, 6 months ago
Selected Answer: C
C is correct , we would get HTTP 400 is it was missing bearer word due to bad request
upvoted 1 times
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anagy11
1 year, 8 months ago
A ; missing "Bearer" word after header name "Authorization"
upvoted 1 times
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DASBOL
1 year, 10 months ago
Selected Answer: A
A is correct. It's missing the "Bearer" word before the token on header.
upvoted 1 times
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Iamrandom
2 years ago
Selected Answer: A
Clearly A. Header is malformed since it's missing the "Bearer" keyword. Not B because you would get a 400 error. Not C since the token in the page showed is always valid for 12h since last page refresh (so showing the page somehow implies the usage of a valid token). Not D since that would produce another type of error about insufficient priviledges for that user (but authorization to use the API would occur correctly), like a 403 forbidden or something similar.
upvoted 1 times
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gablooge
2 years, 1 month ago
The answer is C, search on this page “if you allow the access token to expire” https://developer.webex.com/blog/real-world-walkthrough-of-building-an-oauth-webex-integration
upvoted 1 times
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richard2865
2 years, 1 month ago
I think it is C. Look near the bottom of this page https://developer.webex.com/docs/integrations
upvoted 1 times
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jinck
2 years, 1 month ago
Why do so many people think this should be a GET request when you can clearly see in the POST data that the user is sending text to a specific chat room (\"text\": \"test2\"), not asking for a list of them.
upvoted 1 times
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Ram0n_Aya1a
2 years, 2 months ago
Read: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics look at the section "--header "Authorization: Bearer ACCESS_TOKEN" \" A is Correct.
upvoted 1 times
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faceoff2004
2 years, 4 months ago
As someone else mentioned... the goal of the API above the curl statement was to get a list of messages, not POST to the message room. Even if the Bearer was in the header, the user would have been denied access. We aren't trying to post a message, we want to get the messages. Everything about the API docs is to "LIST" messages and not POST. In order to do that, we need to "GET". The curl statement is essentially doing the wrong thing. D is the answer.
upvoted 2 times
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koptos
2 years, 6 months ago
I think this question have to be remake. The Method used was POST and not GET as in the API description, but then the option D doesn't fit what we are trying to do
upvoted 1 times
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A (35%)
C (25%)
B (20%)
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