Answer = A
Explanation:
Feasible Distance of R3 (successor) = 1075200
Feasible Distance of R1 (feasible successor) = 2611200
Calculation: 2611200 / 1075200 = 2.4
So we need a Variance value higher than 2.4 for unequal cost load balancing to work.
I do not understand
The successor has an FD of 1075200
The feasible successor has an RD of 281600 so the feasibility condition is met ...why should we manipulate the variance? maybe there is a missing zero in the RD of the Feasible successor?
Feasibility isn't the issue. R3 is the BEST route, so it's the only route used. Unless we change the variance. With variance 4, we can use any route where the FD is not greater than 4 times 1075200. (Variance 2 wouldn't be high enough in this case.)
The reason the given answer A is correct and why its not B.
If we want to enable load balancing we have to use the following formula:
FD of feasible successor < FD of successor * multiplier
So we can work out that FD of feasible successor (R2) / FD of successor (R3) = 2.4
So the multiplier - or variance needs to be more than 2.4 - which means only answer A is correct.
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