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Exam 200-301 All Questions

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Exam 200-301 topic 1 question 467 discussion

Actual exam question from Cisco's 200-301
Question #: 467
Topic #: 1
[All 200-301 Questions]


Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10 10.0.0/16.
Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

  • A. GigabitEthernet0/0
  • B. GigabitEthernet0/1
  • C. GigabitEthernet0/2
  • D. GigabitEthernet0/3
Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: B 🗳️

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splashy
Highly Voted 2 years, 1 month ago
Selected Answer: B
ref BW 100000 MB ref BW BW G0/0 100000MB divided by 10000MB (or 10000000KB) = 10 cost G0/1 100000MB divided by 100000MB (or 100000000KB) = 1 cost
upvoted 28 times
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g_mindset
Highly Voted 2 years, 1 month ago
Selected Answer: A
Answer should be A. Ref-bandwidth / bandwith = ospf cost note that bandwidth is in kilobits per second, so you need to convert to Mbs to get the accurate cost.
upvoted 10 times
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[Removed]
Most Recent 7 months, 2 weeks ago
Selected Answer: B
B is correct G0/0 is 100000000Kb/10000000Kb = 10 G0/1 is 100000000Kb/100000000kB = 1
upvoted 2 times
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[Removed]
11 months ago
Selected Answer: B
Three things are true: 1. The "auto-cost reference-bandwidth" takes its argument in Mb. 2. The "bandwidth" command takes its argument in Kb. 3. The formula for calculating OSPF cost is reference_bandwidth/interface_bandwidth. Converting to Kb, the reference-bandwidth is 100000000Kb. The cost calculations are then as follows: G0/0 = 100000000Kb/10000000Kb = 10 G0/1 = 100000000Kb/100000000kB = 1 G0/1 has the lowest cost. The answer is B.
upvoted 6 times
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Elmasquentona963
11 months, 3 weeks ago
Selected Answer: B
Recall: > Cost = (10^6 bps * reference-bandwidth)÷(link-bandwidth) > The "bandwitdh" command will assign bandwidth in [kbps]. G0/0: Cost = (10^6 bps * 10^5 bps)÷(10^7 bps * 10^3) = 10^1 = 10 G0/1: Cost = (10^6 bps * 10^5 bps)÷(10^7 bps * 10^3) = 10^0 = 1 G0/2: Cost = 100 (set by-> ip ospf cost command) G0/3: Cost = 1000 (set by-> ip ospf cost command) > Therefore: The lowest route path cost is connected to the G0/1 (cost = 1).
upvoted 1 times
Elmasquentona963
11 months, 3 weeks ago
CORRECTION IN G0/1... G0/1: Cost = (10^6 bps * 10^5 bps)÷(10^8 bps * 10^3) = 10^0 = 1 Answer is "B" anyway.
upvoted 2 times
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AbdullahMohammad251
11 months, 4 weeks ago
Selected Answer: B
The Cost formula is reference bandwidth divided by interface bandwidth. To adjust the reference bandwidth, use the auto-cost reference-bandwidth Mb/s router configuration command. To adjust the interface bandwidth, use the bandwidth Kb/s interface configuration command. A. 10 B. 1 C. 100 D. 1000
upvoted 2 times
AbdullahMohammad251
11 months, 4 weeks ago
http://cisco.num.edu.mn/CCNA_R&S2/course/module8/8.2.3.3/8.2.3.3.html#:~:text=To%20adjust%20the%20reference%20bandwidth,auto%2Dcost%20reference%2Dbandwidth%201000 https://study-ccna.com/cisco-bandwidth-command-clock-rate-speed/#:~:text=The%20interface%20bandwidth%20command%20is,to%20determine%20the%20appropriate%20route.
upvoted 1 times
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Shanku97
1 year, 2 months ago
ANSWER is b, since the bandwidth value is altered for g0/0 & g0/1, the bw value for them are in kb. first divided them by 1000 to get the values in MB. second, now divide the ref bw value/ interface bw values the cost for g0/1 would be 1, which is lowest.
upvoted 2 times
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mda2h
1 year, 4 months ago
Selected Answer: B
bandwidth (BW) is expressed in kbps. cost = 100 Mbps/BW cost Ge0/0 = 1/100 cost Ge0/1 = 1/1000 cost Ge0/2 = 100 cost Ge0/3 = 1000 Answer is B: Ge0/1 has the lowest cost
upvoted 2 times
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Phonon
1 year, 10 months ago
This is a trick question, both G0/0 and G0/1 have a cost of 1 In OSPF if the interface has a higher bandwidth than the cost metric it will be 1. The answer is indeterminate between A and B
upvoted 6 times
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Netcmd
1 year, 11 months ago
Selected Answer: B
it cannot be A as B has a higher Bandwidth
upvoted 2 times
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Customexit
2 years, 1 month ago
to expand to what g_mindset said: OSPF's metric is called "cost". When you change an interface's bandwidth, it's in kilobits #R1(config-if)#bandwidth ? <1-10000000> Bandwidth in kilobits It's in kilobits. We can tell G0/0 and G0/1's bandwidth were manually altered because 'auto-cost reference bandwidth' was set to 100000 (it's different). A router's cost reference bandwidth is default 100mbps. This is what it looks like when you change the auto-cost reference bandwidth: Router(config-router)#auto-cost reference-bandwidth ? <1-4294967> The reference bandwidth in terms of Mbits per second It's it Mbits per second. Reference-Bandwidth(Mbps) / Interface Bandwidth(Mbps) = OSPF cost 10000000kbps / 1000(Mbps (intG0/0's)) = 10000 10000 / 1000 = 10 Interface GigabitEthernet0/0 has a cost of 10.
upvoted 3 times
Customexit
2 years ago
Disregard my answer, it is B G0/1. I miscounted the 0's in the auto-cost reference bandwidth. Refer to splashy's comment.
upvoted 2 times
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nicombe
2 years, 1 month ago
Selected Answer: B
B is correct because int g0/1 has a higher bandwidth configured than int g0/0 and therefore a lower cost.
upvoted 4 times
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