A security analyst at example.com receives SIEM alert for an IDS signature and reviews the associated packet capture and TCP stream: Packet capture: TCP stream: Which of the following actions should the security analyst take NEXT?
A.
Review the known Apache vulnerabilities to determine if a compromise actually occurred.
B.
Contact the application owner for connect.example.local for additional information.
C.
Mark the alert as a false positive scan coming from an approved source.
D.
Raise a request to the firewall team to block 203.0.113.15.
I currently work in a SOC.
Anytime we receive alerts/offenses that appears to be a potential scan (interna/external), we already verify with the app owner/client if this was expected activity.
We never close a ticket without confirmation, even its from an approved source
The security analyst should review the known Apache vulnerabilities to determine if a compromise actually occurred. The SIEM alert indicates that an IDS signature detected an attempt to exploit a vulnerability in Apache Struts 2 (CVE-2017-5638), which allows remote code execution via a crafted Content-Type header4. The packet capture and TCP stream show that the attacker sent a malicious request with a Content-Type header containing an OGNL expression that executes the command “whoami” on the target server. However, this does not necessarily mean that the attack was successful, as it depends on whether the target server was running a vulnerable version of Apache Struts 2 or not. Therefore, the security analyst should review the known Apache vulnerabilities and compare them with the version of Apache Struts 2 running on the server to confirm if a compromise actually occurred or not.
I agree with Ian pretty much word for word. It looks like this is coming from the SOC but it has still triggered the IDS and so it is worth confirming before either blocking or dismissing.
An authenticated scan reports weaknesses exposed to the authenticated users of the system, as all the hosted services can be accessed with a right set of credentials. An -unauthenticated scan reports weaknesses from a public viewpoint (this is what the system looks like to the unauthenticated users) of the system.
So the scan may be valid but instead of concluding asking for additional information from the application owner doesn't hurt and confirms if this activity is done internally.
Tricky questions, not sure either but knowing the one that investigating this is SOC from exampledotcom, looks like it wants us to pick C. later part of the suspicious code is related to Apache Strut vulnerability. but IV info in the TCP stream indicate that it is coming from example.local. There should be a choice to validate the activity if it is part of pentest or vulscan but regardless if it is unauthorized scanning I would go with D.
it is close for me with C & D but would choose D for this scenario.
check CVE-2017-5638 and for some reason the source IP in the question is tagged as internal in VT. so this is leaning more on the scanning that choice C is saying. I change my answer to C.
This appears to be an unauthenticated connection from SoC, the reverse proxy line shows the source as being from the same domain along with more containers showing SoC attributes. I'm calling this a false positive
I think D is the answer, I tried to understand the TCP stream and found out that the user is not authenticated, and this user trying to do many things seems unusal. so we must block it on the firewall.
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