Exam CS0-002 topic 1 question 116 discussion

Risk value = Impact x Probability C (120,000 x .5 = 60,000)-with NO compensating control (and above $50,000) B (500,000 x .2 = 100,000) A (100,000 x .8 = 80,000) D (80,000 x .4 = 32,000)- NO compensating control (but under $50,000)

Risks without compensating controls will be mitigated first if the risk value is greater than $50,000. C and D on the table go first.

1. find the risk value, which equals impact x probability so A=80,000 / B= 100,000 / C=60,00/ D=32,000. 2. the first statement says if the compensating control is greater than 50,000 it's mitigated firs and the last raw of the table says that the only two options with compensating controls are C/D. C (only) is greater than 50,000 so it comes first. then the risk is mitigated by the order of the risk value - B= 100,000 then A=80,000, and lastly D = 32,000. so C - B - A - D which is option C.

It's C. As it is i can see why people would say D but remember that you have to calculate the risk value first

After reading Risk Value = Impact x Probability, C now makes sense and is correct.

Shouldnt the answer be D? Since C and D is still under the no compensating controls is mitigated first and if over 50K, all their risk value is over 50K

Risk value = impact x probability. C is correct

80 k CC-Y 100 k CC-Y 60 k CC-N 32 k CC-N C is first because of has no compensanting control and the risk value is greater than $50,000 D is last because of has no compensanting control and the risk value is LESS than $50,000 C, B, A, D

Make sure you properly read the question and know basic math - the answer is C: C,B,A,D

C D A B

i would say D .. cause its said if it exceeds 50.000 and risks without mitigation will be protrized first.