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Exam CRISC topic 1 question 543 discussion

Actual exam question from Isaca's CRISC
Question #: 543
Topic #: 1
[All CRISC Questions]

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

  • A. Risk action plans are approved by senior management
  • B. Mitigating controls are designed and implemented
  • C. Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite
  • D. Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register
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Suggested Answer: C 🗳️

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SuperMax
6 months, 1 week ago
Selected Answer: C
Tthe BEST indication of an effective risk management program is option C - Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite. If the residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite, it suggests that the organization has identified and assessed the risks, designed and implemented appropriate controls, and regularly monitored the risks to ensure that they are managed effectively.
upvoted 1 times
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Staanlee
8 months, 1 week ago
Selected Answer: C
C. Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite. The best indication of an effective risk management program is when the residual risk (the risk that remains after applying controls) is within the organizational risk appetite. An effective risk management program ensures that the organization's risk-taking aligns with its risk tolerance and strategic objectives. Keeping the residual risk within the established risk appetite demonstrates that risks are being identified, assessed, and managed in a way that supports the organization's overall goals and tolerances.
upvoted 1 times
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mraiyan
10 months, 3 weeks ago
Selected Answer: C
Should be "C", this is the core objective of risk management. When the residual risk is within the risk appetite then you already should have done A,B & D
upvoted 1 times
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CbtL
1 year, 1 month ago
Selected Answer: C
C seems the most logical answer.
upvoted 1 times
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Julianleehk
1 year, 2 months ago
should be C
upvoted 1 times
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huze
1 year, 7 months ago
From the below, D appears more apt. You could have ad-hoc instances where risk actions are approved by mgmt (A) and Implementation of mitigating controls (B). (C) appears incorrect because the risk program may still be very mature but with instances of residual risk beyond the risk appetite. The key basic of maturity is where Risk across the organization is tracked in risk register, which enables prioritization or remediation and risk awareness, etc. So (D) is the right answer. A. Risk action plans are approved by senior management B. Mitigating controls are designed and implemented C. Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite D. Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register
upvoted 1 times
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Raj1510
2 years, 3 months ago
echo C
upvoted 1 times
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aselunar
2 years, 11 months ago
I think it is C. R1-127 is a related question.
upvoted 3 times
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NeilKK
3 years, 9 months ago
C should be the correct answer.
upvoted 4 times
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Stanislav_crisc
3 years, 10 months ago
as to know Residual risk we have to have all Risk management stadies passed...also we may not need any mitigiation (if there are inherit Risks are within risk appetite)
upvoted 2 times
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Stanislav_crisc
3 years, 10 months ago
why controls? they might be ineffective, why not C. Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite?
upvoted 2 times
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