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Exam MD-100 topic 3 question 28 discussion

Actual exam question from Microsoft's MD-100

Question #: 28
Topic #: 3

HOTSPOT -
You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup.
You perform the following configurations on Computer1:
✑ Create a user named User1.
✑ Add User1 to the Remote Desktop Users group.
You perform the following configurations on Computer2:
✑ Create a user named User1 and specify the same user password as the one set on Computer1.
✑ Create a share named Share2 and grant User1 Full control access to Share2.
✑ Enable Remote Desktop.
What are the effects of the configurations? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Suggested Answer:

by hokieman91 at Nov. 4, 2020, 3:40 p.m.

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Anthony_2770

Highly Voted 4 years, 6 months ago

1.Access share2 without a prompt. User1 will have inherited local read permissions when the folder is initially created, as the user1 account has been created on both machines with the same password and has full control share permissions 2.Be prompted for credentials and be prevented from signing in as User1. Remote desktop is operational on Computer2 hence the logon screen but User1 is not in the Remote Desktop Users group. I tried this out and this was the results that I achieved.

upvoted 59 times

AnoniMouse

4 years ago

Totally agree with you

upvoted 3 times

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WalkingOnAir

4 years, 5 months ago

I am not sure about 1. They are two user account Computer1\User1 and Computer2\User1, with different sid.

upvoted 5 times

Ptit_filou

4 years, 5 months ago

I thought it wouldn't work either, but I tested, it does :))

upvoted 5 times

AVP_Riga

4 years, 2 months ago

Yes, I agree. I had some places without domain, and RDP works fine if Users have same Login and Password and added to RDP group. But only you have to type login and password every time.

upvoted 3 times

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flabezerra

2 years, 9 months ago

"Require computers to use Network Level Authentication to connect" (NLA) is a DEFAULT option available when you switch to enable Remote Desktop. It will always require authentication when you log on from another computer EVEN IF YOU ARE A MEMBER OF REMOTE DESKTOP USERS. And also there's the SID situation that the fellows above said. My thoughts go to "Be prompted".

upvoted 1 times

flabezerra

2 years, 9 months ago

There is the article from Microsoft https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/clients/remote-desktop-allow-access

upvoted 1 times

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flabezerra

2 years, 8 months ago

Correct answers are: Access Share2 without a prompt. Be prompted for credentials and be able to sign in as User1.

upvoted 3 times

flabezerra

2 years, 8 months ago

When you create Share2 folder with explicit Full Control permission for User1 at the Share-level, the Everyone group with Read permission already exists there. It is always assumed that Share2 was created at the root of drive C. Share2 inherits NTFS-level permissions from the Local Users (Read & Execute) and Authenticated Users (Modify) groups. Remembering that User1 on Computer1 and Computer2 are two completely different users and do not relate at all, even for remote connection.

upvoted 1 times

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flabezerra

2 years, 5 months ago

The second statement got me wrong. The correct answer for the second statement is If User1 attempts to sign in to Remote Desktop on Computer2 from Computer1, the user will: Be prompted for credentials and be prevented from sign in as User1. Explanation: You have will be prevented to sign in on Computer2 because User1 was not added to the Remote Desktop Users group of Computer2 when User1 tried to sign in from Computer1.

upvoted 1 times

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hokieman91

Highly Voted 4 years, 7 months ago

Disagree with RDP answer - User 1 is only in the group on Computer 1 for RDP - not computer 2. So when User1 (from computer 1) attempts to RDP into Computer 2, they will be presented with login credentials since remote desktop is active but will be denied since they are not in the remote users group on computer 2 (only computer 1)

upvoted 12 times

geekygirl12

4 years, 7 months ago

But these computers are in a workgroup, so wouldnt user1 being in remote users group allow it to access computer 2 via RDP?

upvoted 2 times

hokieman91

4 years, 7 months ago

The only way to achieve this would be is if they were both in a domain and if the domain account used on computer 1 was added to the remote user group on computer 2. The only thing computers in this scenario can effectively share in a workgroup are resources (files, printers, music, etc) I think this is a trick question testing knowledge of domain PC vs homegroup PCs

upvoted 3 times

EthanG

4 years, 6 months ago

I find myself overthinking nearly every question. At first glance, User1 has full access and is granted access via Remote Desktop. A lot of these questions, I feel are intentionally vague. I assumed they were on a shared domain. Perhaps that's because this question dump is so out of order. But at first glance, I agreed with these answers.

upvoted 1 times

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Requi3m

3 years, 9 months ago

This is incorrect. I work every day on a VM that is not domain joined, but is connected to the company network. I've enabled RDP on the VM and can connect to it from a management server using mstsc.exe and logging in with the local admin account of the VM. I do have to use the ip adress of the VM to connect though, hostname won't work.

upvoted 1 times

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Simme355

Most Recent 1 year, 9 months ago

First answer is correct, I tested this following this topology. I'm not prompted for any credentials. Second answer however is incorrect. User1 needs to be member of 'Remote Desktop Users Group' on computer 2, else access will be denied. The other way around, RDP from Computer 2 to Computer 1 would work.

upvoted 1 times

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DestinysPower

2 years, 3 months ago

chat gpt says the current answer is correct If User1 attempts to access Share2 from Computer1, the user will: Access Share2 without a prompt If User1 attempts to sign into Remote Desktop on Computer2 from Computer1, the user will: be prompted for credentials and be able to sign in as User1. Explanation: On Computer2, a user named User1 was created and granted Full control access to Share2. On Computer1, a user named User1 was also created and added to the Remote Desktop Users group. Since the user passwords are the same on both computers, User1 can access Share2 on Computer2 without being prompted for credentials. However, when User1 attempts to sign into Remote Desktop on Computer2 from Computer1, the user will be prompted for credentials because Remote Desktop requires separate authentication from the user's login credentials. Once User1 enters the correct credentials, they will be able to sign into Remote Desktop on Computer2 as User1.

upvoted 2 times

Rnnnn

2 years ago

I asked Chat GPT and got the same answer, but I asked "Don't we need to add User1 as a member of the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2?" then Chat GPT answered as below. ---- Apologies for the oversight in my previous response. You're correct, in order for User1 to successfully sign in to Remote Desktop on Computer2 from Computer1, User1 needs to be a member of the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2 as well. So, to ensure a successful Remote Desktop connection, it is necessary to add User1 as a member of the Remote Desktop Users group on Computer2 in addition to the configurations mentioned earlier. ---- so I think the answer to the second question is Be prompted for credentials and be prevented from signing in as User1.

upvoted 1 times

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ChrisC21

2 years, 4 months ago

Anthony's answer is correct. Tested and confirmed this in virtual environment. 1. Access Share2 without a prompt 2. Be prompted for credentials and be prevented from signing in as User1 Once User1 is added in Computer2, RD connection goes through and I can connect, even on APIPA.

upvoted 1 times

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Henry78

2 years, 10 months ago

Guys, Accessing a network share is not the same as signing in. Don't mix these two concepts up. In a workgroup: a shared folder/printer is accessable by anyone, by default. even by non-local users. a sign-in -via Network (\\pc)- to a pc where the user hasn't been created locally, is not possible. a sign-in -via RDP- to a pc where the user hasn't been created locally, is possiblem with some settings.

upvoted 3 times

flabezerra

2 years, 8 months ago

You're right. Practical and accurate.

upvoted 1 times

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raduM

3 years ago

if you are not in the remote desktop users group you get the error message that the user is not authorized for Remote login. Depending on the users/groups that have the right to access the computer from the network he should be able to access the pc without a prompt

upvoted 1 times

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raduM

3 years ago

In order for a local user to be able to connect to a domain computer via RDP, he must be a member of the Remote Desktop Users group, or added to the local policy Allow Log on through Remote Desktop Services in the following section of the GPO editor (Computer Configuration > Policies > Windows Settings > Security Settings > Local Policies > User Rights).

upvoted 1 times

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mikl

3 years, 8 months ago

RDP is enabled on Computer2, however the User1 being used on Computer2 is not part of the Remote Desktop Users group, so I suppose it will fail?

upvoted 3 times

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CARIOCA

3 years, 9 months ago

Is the final answer correct or not?

upvoted 1 times

Requi3m

3 years, 9 months ago

It seems to be correct. I trust Anthony_2770 on the topic of access to share2. RDP is enabled on Computer2. This means Computer 2 will accept incoming RDP connections and prompt for credentials. You can then log in with the Computer2\User1 local account. Membership of the Remote Desktop Users group is only required for external users, like domain users.

upvoted 3 times

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AmirCSUDH

4 years ago

Wrong Answer for part B.. user1 has to join remote desktop users group in computer 2 not 1 I agree with hokieman91

upvoted 1 times

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hokieman91

4 years, 6 months ago

After re-re-thinking, I am changing answer to agree with supplied answer given on RDP. I think the vague part is that if user1 tries to connect with just using "user1", it will fail, however, if they connect with user "computer2\user1", it will work. Just have to figure out what Microsoft is trying to test or verify

upvoted 6 times

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