Exam PMI-RMP topic 1 question 369 discussion

Actual exam question from PMI's PMI-RMP

Question #: 294
Topic #: 1

A two-year project with a budget of US$2 million has completed about 60% of the work at the end of the first year. The actual cost incurred to complete the remaining 40% of work is about US$1.5 million. As a part of performing a specialized risk analysis, the calculated schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.2 and cost performance index (CPI) is 0.53.

How should the risk manager interpret such a low CPI value?

A. The cost control processes are ineffective.
B. The cost baseline is inaccurate.
C. The actual reported costs are inaccurate.
D. The cost related risks are effectively managed.

Show Suggested Answer

Suggested Answer: A 🗳️

by emikhael at March 21, 2023, 1:48 a.m.

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MikeMarlo

6 months, 2 weeks ago

Selected Answer: A

Think the same

upvoted 1 times

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Azharmak

1 year ago

CPI less than 1 means poor cost control and over spending. Thus its A

upvoted 1 times

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emikhael

1 year, 8 months ago

Selected Answer: A

The CPI is less than 1 which means that the cost risk management is not effective and the project is running over budget

upvoted 2 times

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