Exam PgMP topic 1 question 46 discussion

Actual exam question from PMI's PgMP

Question #: 46
Topic #: 1

Your program has a budget at completion of $1,550,000 and is expected to last one year.
Currently your program is 45 percent complete and has spent $725,000. According to the program schedule you are actually to be fifty percent complete by this time, but due to some vendor delays your program is running just a bit late. Based on this information which is performing worse, the cost or schedule?

A. The schedule is performing worse because the SPI is .90
B. The cost is performing worse because the EAC is $1,611,111.
C. The schedule is performing worse because the SV is -$27,500.
D. The cost is performing worse because the CPI is .96.

Show Suggested Answer

Suggested Answer: A 🗳️

by happykaur at Feb. 27, 2024, 8:22 a.m.

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Nugi

4 months, 2 weeks ago

Selected Answer: A

Explanation: • BAC = 1,550,000 • AC = 725,000 • EV = (BAC * 0.45) = (1,550,000 * 0.45) = 697,500 • PV = planned % * BAC = 0.50 * 1,550,000 = 775,000 • CPI = EV / AC = 697,500 / 725,000 = 0.96 • SPI = EV / PV = 697,500 / 775,000 = 0.90

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happykaur

8 months, 3 weeks ago

Selected Answer: A

The answer is obvious from the options. SPI of 0.9 is worse than CPI of 0.96

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Exam PgMP topic 1 question 46 discussion

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Nugi

happykaur

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