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Exam PgMP topic 1 question 57 discussion

Actual exam question from PMI's PgMP
Question #: 57
Topic #: 1
[All PgMP Questions]

You are the program manager of the HNG Program. This program has a budget at completion of $2,345,900 and is expected to last two years. The program is currently 30 percent complete and you have spent $789,000. The program is supposed to be 35 percent complete but do to some delays you're slightly behind schedule. Based on this information, what is the schedule variance (SV) of this program?

  • A. -$85,230
  • B. $821,065
  • C. -$284,100
  • D. -$117,295
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Suggested Answer: D 🗳️

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Nugi
4 months, 2 weeks ago
Selected Answer: D
- Budget at Completion (BAC) = 2,345,900 - Actual Cost (AC) = 789,000 - Earned Value (EV) = (current completion % * BAC) = 0.30 * 2,345,900 = 703,770 - Planned Value (PV) = (planned completion % * BAC) = 0.35 * 2,345,900 = 821,065 - Schedule Variance (SV) = EV – PV = 703,770 – 821,065 = -117,295
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Fahad1989
8 months, 1 week ago
the Answer is (D) Earned Value (EV) = 0.30 Planned Value (PV) = 0.35 Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) Schedule Variance (SV) = (0.30-0.35)*2345900 = -117295 := So the Answer is (D)
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sg346c
8 months, 2 weeks ago
Correct answer should be B. The question is based on schedule, not on cost. (2345900 *5%) = -117295
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UHS
10 months, 1 week ago
Correct answer should be A D is only (2345900 *5%) = -117295 which is incorrect and does not take into account the actuals as of today (PV)
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SyedCert
2 years, 1 month ago
For me its, A. Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) Schedule Variance (SV) = BCWP – BCWS =2345900*0.3 - 789000 = -85230
upvoted 2 times
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