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Exam NCLEX-RN topic 4 question 75 discussion

Actual exam question from Test Prep's NCLEX-RN
Question #: 75
Topic #: 4
[All NCLEX-RN Questions]

A 22-year-old single woman was admitted to the psychiatric hospital by her mother, who reported bizarre behavior. Except for going to work, she spends all her time in her room and expresses concern over neighbors spying on her. She has fears of the telephone being "bugged." Her diagnosis is schizophrenia. One nurse per shift is assigned to work with the client. The primary reason for this plan would be to:

  • A. Protect her from suicide
  • B. Enable her to develop trust
  • C. Supervise her medication regimen
  • D. Involve her in groups for social interaction
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Suggested Answer: B 🗳️
(A) Suicide is a greater risk in depression than in schizophrenia. (B) The client is suspicious and needs help to develop trust, which is basic to her improvement.
(C) Although she will be taking medication, drug therapy would not necessitate consistency in the nurses assigned. (D) A suspicious client should have limited exposure to groups, because group participation increases discomfort.

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