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Exam NCLEX-RN topic 7 question 54 discussion

Actual exam question from Test Prep's NCLEX-RN
Question #: 54
Topic #: 7
[All NCLEX-RN Questions]

A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a "Trendelenburg gait." This gait is characteristic of:

  • A. Scoliosis
  • B. Dislocated hip
  • C. Fractured femur
  • D. Fractured pelvis
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Suggested Answer: B 🗳️
(A, C, D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. (B) The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight- bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.
by [deleted] at March 10, 2025, 7:17 a.m.

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