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Exam NREMT topic 4 question 21 discussion

Actual exam question from Test Prep's NREMT
Question #: 21
Topic #: 4
[All NREMT Questions]

You have responded for a 17 year-old male who has had a sudden onset of shortness of breath. During your evaluation of the patient, he tells you that he has a history of Marfan's syndrome. The patient is dyspneic and has decreased lung sounds on the left side of his chest. What do you think is the most likely cause of this patient's shortness of breath?

  • A. Pneumonia
  • B. Pulmonary embolis
  • C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
  • D. Congenital lung disease
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Suggested Answer: C 🗳️
A common complication seen in the patient with Marfan's syndrome is a spontaneous pneumothorax. Marfan's syndrome is a connective tissue disorder that results in weak organ and tissue structure. Along with spontaneous pneumothoracies, they are also more likely to develop aortic aneurysms.
by [deleted] at March 10, 2025, 7:50 a.m.

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